Practice Exam

G5A11

1. What letter is used to represent reactance?

• A. B
• B. Y
• C. Z
• D. X

G4E09

2. What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

• A. 1.38 VDC
• B. 0.2 VDC
• C. 0.5 VDC
• D. 0.02 VDC

G1C11

3. What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

• A. RMS input to the antenna
• B. PEP input to the antenna
• C. RMS output from the transmitter
• D. PEP output from the transmitter

G0B05

4. Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

• A. Overvoltage on the hot wires
• B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire

G0A03

5. How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
• C. By calculation based on computer modeling
• D. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

G1A07

6. On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

• A. 28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
• B. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
• C. 28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
• D. The entire band

G7A07

7. What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

• A. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
• B. A steady DC voltage
• C. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
• D. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

G2C07

8. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

• A. Key clicks
• B. Chirpy or unstable signal
• C. 100 percent copy
• D. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

G5C09

9. What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

• A. 33.3 microfarads
• B. 0.33 microfarads
• C. 300 microfarads
• D. 3.0 microfarads

G6A01

10. What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

• A. 8.5 volts
• B. 6 volts
• C. 12 volts
• D. 10.5 volts

G5B13

11. What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

• A. 1500 watts
• B. 1060 watts
• C. 2120 watts
• D. 530 watts

G3A08

12. How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

• A. Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
• B. Improve high-latitude HF propagation
• C. Degrade ground wave propagation
• D. Improve ground wave propagation

G1B09

13. On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

• A. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
• B. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
• C. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
• D. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt

G1D11

14. What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

• A. Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
• B. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
• C. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
• D. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

G8A01

15. How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

• A. By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
• B. By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
• C. By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
• D. By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

G9D05

16. What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

• A. It narrows the main lobe in elevation
• B. It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
• C. It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
• D. It narrows the main lobe in azimuth

G2E08

17. In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

• A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
• B. Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
• C. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
• D. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

G2D07

18. Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

• A. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
• B. Adam, Boy, Charles, David
• C. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
• D. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog

G8B13

19. Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

• A. 3F1-F2
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. 5F1-3F2
• D. 2F1-F2

G7C10

20. What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

• A. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
• B. The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
• C. Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
• D. Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

G6B08

21. How is an LED biased when emitting light?

• A. In the tunnel-effect region
• B. Forward biased
• C. At the Zener voltage
• D. Reverse biased

G9B02

22. Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

• A. Slope the radials upward
• B. Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
• C. Coil the radials
• D. Slope the radials downward

G3C02

23. What is meant by the term "critical frequency" at a given incidence angle?

• A. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
• B. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
• C. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
• D. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

G4A03

24. How does a noise blanker work?

• A. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
• B. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
• C. By clipping noise peaks
• D. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

G1E03

25. What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

• A. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
• B. No third-party traffic may be transmitted
• C. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
• D. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

G4C04

26. What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

• A. A chirpy CW signal
• B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
• C. On-and-off humming or clicking
• D. Severely distorted audio

G3B10

27. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

• A. 1,200 miles
• B. 12,000 miles
• C. 2,500 miles
• D. 180 miles

G2A02

28. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

• A. Lower sideband
• B. Double sideband
• C. Upper sideband
• D. Suppressed sideband

G4B05

29. Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

• A. It improves the resolution of the readings
• B. It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
• C. It improves the frequency response
• D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

G9A02

30. What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

• A. High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
• B. High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
• C. High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
• D. There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR

G9C03

31. How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

• A. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
• B. The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
• C. They are all the same length
• D. Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

G8C12

32. Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

• A. Volumetric
• B. Viterbi
• C. Binary
• D. Varicode

G4D09

33. What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

• A. 14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
• B. 14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
• C. 14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
• D. 14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz

G2B05

34. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• B. 2 kHz to 3 kHz
• C. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• D. Approximately 6 kHz

G7B03

35. Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

• A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
• B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
• C. Output is low only when both inputs are high
• D. Output is low when either or both inputs are high